Text book @ 2010. Jones Bartlett Publications. Author, Crowley, "Introduction to Human Disease."
Its my understanding the most deadly covid 19 complication is caused by SARS, aka severe acute respiratory syndrome, which is caused by coronavirus pneumonia.
I found the following entry written in the year 2002 in the referenced book at the beginning of this comment.
"SARS is highly communicable caused by an unusual Coronaovirus. It has spread rapidly through several countries since it was first identified in 2002. There are no effective antiviral drugs that can influence the course of this disease. The SARS associated virus is unique and not closely related to other known Coronaviruses and is the first one to cause severe disease in people. Symptoms: chills, fever, mild respiratory symptoms and occasionally diarrhea. After 3 to 7 days lower respiratory tract infection symptoms appear. Cough, SOB, pneumonia- positive xrays. Severity of disease is quite variable. The lungs of affected patients show the characteristic features of the adult respiratory distress syndrome, and they require mechanical ventilation as well as other measures to improve pulmonary function."
What's my point? Sars-Covid was first identified 2002. So what happened to control Sars covid- coronavirus in the years since? Anything? Has it been around since 2002 and now in 2020 the public health system has just gotten around to dealing with it. Has it taken 20yrs not one year for the whole globe to be reporting cases? It was just as contagious and deadly in 2002 as it is in 2020.
Could the pandemic be what happens when medicine is run for profit and by insurance companies. Companies who control the politicians and have controlled them for decades.
Is it the same disease? Why are children less likely to get severe cases. Is it because it is the adults who get severe respiratory distress syndrome?
What happened between 2002 and 2020. What makes Sars-covid different now from then?
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